Updated D-NWG-FN-23 Exam Dumps (V9.02) – Real Exam Questions to Help You Pass the Dell Networking Foundations 2023 Exam

1. At which layer of the OSI model is the Rapid Spanning Tree protocol used to prevent switching loops?

2. Which parameter is required to match an OSPF Adjacency to form?

3. A Dell Networking N3024 has a link aggregation configured as shown:

interface Gi1/0/1

channel-group 1 mode active

exit

!

interface Gi1/0/2

channel-group 1 mode active

exit

!

interface port-channel 1

switchport access vlan 10

exit

After connecting all cables, the port-channel does NOT work as expected.

As part of the troubleshooting process, the technician examines the “show lldp” displayed:

What is the most likely cause for the issue on the port-channel?

4. A technician configures RIP on a new N-Series switch to connect to an existing switch that runs RIP. The routing table is not populating even after the network statements are added.

What is a possible cause of this issue?

5. Which of the following is an optional LLDP TLV?

6. A network administrator needs to identify which MAC addresses are static.

Under which column in the output of the show mac-address-table command is this information displayed?

7. What is the FCS field used for in an Ethernet frame?

8. What is the size of the ICMP header?

9. Which two port states are valid on a root bridge in a converged Spanning Tree network? (Choose two.)

10. What is the dotted decimal notation for a /29 prefix?

11. What is the maximum frequency of a CAT6 UTP cable?

12. When configuring a switch, which CLI mode only supports limited show commands?

13. Which command sequence leads to the successful creation of a Layer 3 port channel on an OS10 switch?

14. Which type of route is often used to direct traffic bound for the Internet?

15. How is a switch different from a hub?

16. Which IEEE standard defines the Data Link Layer, Discovery protocol?

17. What does the blinking yellow Activity/PoE LED indicate on an N-Series switch?

18. On which Dell EMC Networking switches can Multi-Chassis Link Aggregation (MLAG) be configured?

19. A Dell EMC Networking N-Series switch is configured on a port channel with LACP using the interfaces Te1/0/1 and Te1/0/2.

How is the egress traffic distributed among the interfaces?

20. Which IPv6 scope is used for private addressing within an organization?

21. Which Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) version supports IPv6?

22. Which IPv6 address type is similar to IPv4 APIPA?

23. What attributes does LLDP use to send and receive information about directly connected neighbors?

24. What is the correct sequence of steps that occur in the communications between the client and server to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server?

25. Which OS6 command is used to verify the running configuration on port 4?

26. A network administrator created three VLANs on an Ethernet switch.

How many broadcast domains are created by the switch?

27. Refer to the exhibit.

A technician configures RIP on a new N-Series switch to connect to an existing switch that runs RIP. The new switch routing table is NOT populating even after the correct network statements are added.

What is causing this issue?

28. How is outbound traffic distributed when using LACP port channels on OS6 switches?

29. A static route is denoted with which flag in the routing table?

30. A network administrator has a Dell EMC switch that has been configured with several VLANs. Each VLAN switch virtual interface (SVI) has an IP address assigned to it with each of them on different subnets. In addition, routing has been enabled on the switch.

Which action occurs when the switch receives a packet on one of its SVIs but the destination IP address of the packet does not match the IP address of that SVI?

31. Which type of domains are connected by a Layer 2 switch?

32. Which command is available in OS6 to verify jumbo frames?

33. What accurately describes IPv6 addressing?

34. A dell Networking N-Series has configured a port-channel with LACP using the interfaces Tel/0/1 and Tel/0/2.

How is the egress traffic distributed among the interfaces?

35. Which route type is added to the routing table by a routing protocol?

36. Which nanometer range will an SFP work in multi-mode?

37. Which operating system does an N-Series switch use?

38. A service technician is deploying four Dell N-Series switches in a company's network. The technician has enabled the spanning tree protocol on the switches.

Which switch would the spanning tree protocol select as a root bridge?

39. Which formula is used for calculating OSPF interface costs?

40. What are the required commands to configure a native VLAN of 10 and a tagged VLAN of 20 on an OS6 switch?

41. A network technician has printers that negotiate at half-duplex.

Which three switches will auto-negotiate the printers? (Choose three.)

42. What are three benefits of using dynamic routing protocols over static routing? (Choose three.)

43. Refer to the output shown:

Which two statements describe the state of configuration of interfaces gi1/0/1-24? (Choose two.)

44. Two N3024F switches are directly connected using 10GBASE-SR transceivers and 10 foot fiber patch cables. The ports on both sides are NOT linking.

What are two possible reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)

45. What accurately describes an ICMP error message?

46. What is the default OSPF “hello interval”?

47. A network administrator wants to use a subnet that will only have two host addresses.

Which subnet mask meets this requirement?

48. Which platforms are supported by the Dell EMC Networking OS (DNOS) 6?

49. Which switch should Spanning Tree Protocol choose to become the root bridge in the election process?

50. In addition to receiving an IP address, what other information is obtained from a DHCP server?

51. Which IP address belongs to the same subnet as 192.168.8.10/22?

52. If a packet is sent to an IPv6 address and many devices receive the packet, what is this type of traffic?

53. Which field of the 802.3 frame is used by network interface cards to synchronize their receivers?

54. Which Layer 2 technology is used to segment a switched network?

55. How many total addresses for network, broadcast, and host are provided with the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?

56. A technician implements a new copper connection to Gi2/0/20.

Which command should be used to check the cable length?

57. Which Layer 1 device can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment?

58. A technician has one stack of three N3024. The technician removes the master unit without powering off the stack. This unit is reconfigured with new IP address in the same Layer 2 network.

Which management issue is the result?

59. Refer to the output:

How has OSPF been configured?

60. A technician wants to allow SSH connections to authenticate using an external server. If the external server becomes unreachable, the users created on the switch should be allowed.

What command will accomplish this goal?

61. What is the correct sequence of steps when a web browser accesses a web server?

62. Which subnet mask provides only two valid IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts?

63. What are the Protocol Data Units (PDUs) called at the Transport layer?

64. Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

65. What accurately describes the Simple Network Time Protocol (SNTP)?

66. In IPv6 addressing, what refers to four binary characters?

67. Which command is used to prevent STP learning on a port that is connected to a server?

68. What action needs to be performed to enable SSH on a new switch?

69. Which of the following is an IPv4 address?

70. A VLAN has been configured to have an IPv6 address and a stateless address autoconfiguration for clients.

Which IPv6 address prefix will the default gateway have on a client?

71. A network administrator is troubleshooting an OSPF routing issue. There are two paths to a destination network from one switch. In addition, one path is comprised of four 1 Gb links.

The other path is comprised of two 1 Gb and two 100 Mb links. The administrator ran several trace routes and notices that the packets are swapping back and forth between the two paths.

Which corrective action must be taken on the switch infrastructure to correct this issue?

72. Which command shows active telnet sessions on Dell N-Series switches?

73. What criteria is used to determine STP root elections?

74. What is a valid subnet mask?

75. Which command enables the read-write network monitoring community string?

76. Refer to the output:

console#show interfaces switchport te1/0/1 Port: Te1/0/1

VLAN Membership Mode: General Mode Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)

General Mode PVID: 9 General Mode Ingress Filtering: Enabled General Mode

Acceptable Frame Type: Admit All

General Mode Dynamically Added VLANs: General Mode Untagged VLANs: 1, 9

General Mode Tagged VLANs: 10-11 General Mode Forbidden VLANs: Trunking

Mode Native VLAN: 1 (default)

Trunking Mode Native VLAN Tagging: Disabled Trunking Mode VLANs Enabled: All

Private VLAN Host Association: none Private VLAN Mapping:

Private VLAN Operational Bindings: Default Priority: 0

Protected: Disabled console#

What VLAN will untagged ingress traffic be assigned?

77. Which Dell EMC Networking M-Series 10 GbE switch model supports a VLT?

78. What is administrative distance value for default static routes?

79. What accurately describes the Network Time Protocol (NTP)?

80. What accurately describes the comparison between stacking and VLT?

81. A network admin wants to secure SNMP access to the switch using an ACL named SPLUNKSRV.

Which command will accomplish this task?

82. On Switch A, a static route has been redistributed into OSPF.

Which type of OSPF router will this process make Switch A?

83. Which switchport command must be applied to an interface to allow Voice VLAN configurations?

84. What is the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) in the MAC address 00:C4:4F:23:AF:4A?

85. You have been tasked with designing an IPv4 scheme for the 192.168.40.0/24 network.

What subnet mask can be used to produce at least five networks that can each support 28 hosts?

86. How will RIP treat packets that have exceeded the default maximum hop count?

87. Which sequence represents a TCP half closed session?

88. What is the aggregated lanes’ maximum speed rating for a QSFP28 transceiver?

89. A client must connect a printer located on a public area on an X1000. The client is concerned someone will use the printer Ethernet cable to gain unauthorized network access.

Which configuration will help prevent unauthorized accesses?

90. Root bridge Switch A is connected to Switch B. They are connected using the same corresponding interfaces Gi1/01 and Gi1/0/2 on both sides.

Which interface becomes a root port?

91. Which LLDP-MED TLV communicates DSCP values?

92. What are the mandatory TLV fields in a LLDP PDU frame?

93. How many discrete LAN networks are shown in the graphic?

94. Which port states are used in both spanning tree and rapid spanning port tree protocols?

95. The IEEE separates the Data Link and Physical ISO layers into four sub-layers.

Based on the exhibit, what is the correct order of these sub-layers; from lowest to highest?

96. Which protocols use a central server to authenticate users?

97. Which IPv4 address is in the same network as the IP address 182.15.24.40/23 and assignable to a host device?

98. You recently joined a company as a junior-level network administrator. You have been tasked with designing the IPv4 scheme for five networks that will be used for training classrooms.

These networks need to support no more than 28 devices each. Due to the existing network design, the senior-level network administrator has asked you to work on the network 192.168.40.0/24.

If all networks must be made to logically start with the lowest numbered network and end with the largest numbered network, which subnet mask achieves this design?

99. Which is the slowest standard that a CAT6 cable supports?

100. What is the default route preference value for a Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) internal route?