Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination FPGEE Dumps Questions

1. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

2. Mechanism of resistance of sufentanil is:

3. Side effect of clindamycin is:

4. Cigarette smoke causes an increase in levels of CYP1A isozymes. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by the CYP1A system.

What would happen to theophylline clearance for an asthmatic patient in hospital who could not smoke?

5. What would be the preferred route of metabolism of succinyl choline?

6. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

7. Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:

8. Mechanism of action of cefoxitin is:

9. Which of the following causes the smallest change in solubility?

10. Indication of salmeterol is:

11. Indication of clindamycin is:

12. Mechanism of action of vincristine is:

13. Class of metformin is:

14. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

15. Effect of bisacodyl is:

16. Class of nystatin is:

17. Site of metabolism of zolpidem is:

18. Mechanism of action of amiloride is:

19. Side effect of dipyridamole is:

20. Mechanism of resistance of Invirase is:

21. Indication of PTU is:

22. Indication of doxycycline is:

23. Side effect of furosemide is:

24. For highly polar drugs (e.g. mannitol) what primarily determines elimination rate?

25. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines?

26. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

27. For the majority of drugs, which of the following equations correctly defines clearance?

28. Route of administration of interferon alpha is:

29. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

30. Which of the following statements refers to bretylium?

31. Indication of metoprolol is:

32. Class of nelfinavir is:

33. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

34. Indication of ticarcillin is:

35. Mechanism of action of doxorubicin is:

36. Indication of Norvir is:

37. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?

38. Indication of phenoxybenzamine is:

39. Route of administration of methadone is:

40. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

41. A drug ending in the suffix (azole. is considered a ______.

42. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

43. Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

44. Interactions with other drugs of clonazepam is:

45. Mechanism of action of flunisolide is:

46. Class of demeclocycline is:

47. Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

48. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?

49. Effect of diltiazem is:

50. Which of the following statements refers to phenelzine?

51. Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

52. Mechanism of action of enalapril is:

53. Which of the following are similarities between Cytochrome P450 and MAO?

54. Which of the following statements refers to etidronate?

55. Side effect of nedocromil is:

56. Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.

57. Which of the following enzymes could directly act on codeine?

58. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?

59. Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate appreciably in drug metabolism?

60. Contraindication of indacrinone is:

61. Half-life of streptomycin is:

62. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.

63. Mechanism of action of chlorthalidone is:

64. Class of pyrimethamine is:

65. Side effect of fluvastatin is:

66. Indication of epinephrine is:

67. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

68. Indication of aspirin is:

69. Class of buspirone is:

70. Mechanism of action of neomycin is:

71. Interactions with other drugs of tramadol is?

72. Class of cilastin is:

73. Mechanism of action of isoetharine is:

74. Class of famciclovir is:

75. Side effect of actinomycin D is:

76. Class of reserpine is:

77. Which of the following enzymes could metabolize ethanol?

78. Mechanism of action of indinavir is:

79. Contraindication of sulfamethoxazole is:

80. dication of ciprofloxacin is:

81. How much of a 10 mg dose of morphine reaches the systemic circulation given F = .24?

82. Half-life of adenosine is:

83. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

84. Mechanism of action of amyl nitrite is:

85. Given F = .24, what is the overall hepatic clearance of morphine if the above patient has portal hypertension such that their hepatic blood flow is reduced by ½? Assume the clearance value given in the previous question is entirely hepatic clearance.

86. Which of the following statements refers to buspirone?

87. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

88. Class of nitrogen mustard is:

89. Effect of cascara is:

90. Mechanism of action of FK506 is:

91. Subclass of lomafloxacin is:

92. Route of administration of ofloxacin is:

93. Route of excretion of cinoxacin is:

94. Given that the VD = 230 L/70Kg and Cl = 60 L/hr/70 Kg for morphine, approximately how much of a 10 mg IV dose remains after 8 hr, given to a normal 70 Kg patient?

95. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

96. Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

97. Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC?

98. Bioavailability is related to which of the following parameters, according to the equation F = 1 - E

99. In a zero order elimination process, which of the following is true?

100. Which of the following Cytochrome P450 isozymes is responsible for the bulk of phase I metabolism?