Check Point 156-215.81 Dumps Updated – Valid For Passing Check Point CCSA R81 Exam

1. Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

2. Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

3. In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

4. When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

5. Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

6. In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log.

Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

7. What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

8. What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

9. From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

10. Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

11. What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

12. Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

13. Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

14. The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to

detect and block malware.

15. What are the types of Software Containers?

16. Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

17. CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.

The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

18. If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

19. Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

20. What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?

21. What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

22. A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways.

What is considered part of the zone?

23. Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

24. Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

25. A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the

network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time.

What tool can you use to block this traffic?

26. What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

27. In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

28. Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

29. What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

30. An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops.

Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

31. Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

32. Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

33. Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? (Choose the best answer.)

34. Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy

packages.

35. R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

36. Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

37. Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

38. How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

39. In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

40. You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet.

How can you fix this?

41. Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

42. Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

43. The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches.

Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

44. Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

45. Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

46. Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

47. True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

48. After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

49. In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

50. When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

51. Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

52. A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

53. Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

54. Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

55. Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

56. Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

57. How do you manage Gaia?

58. Log query results can be exported to what file format?

59. What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

60. Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

61. When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

62. Examine the sample Rule Base.

What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

63. SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

64. Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

65. What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

66. Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10.

What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

67. The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways.

Which statement best describes this Secure Internal Communication (SIC)?

68. Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

69. Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

70. What is the default shell for the command line interface?

71. What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

72. Check Point licenses come in two forms.

What are those forms?

73. In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

74. You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information.

What is the MOST likely reason?

75. Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

76. In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

77. What is true about the IPS-Blade?

78. The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

79. What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

80. In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

81. You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher.

How can you enable them?

82. When should you generate new licenses?

83. Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

84. Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

85. How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

86. Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

87. Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

88. Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

89. In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

90. Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

91. SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

92. To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

93. DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

94. Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

95. In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

96. Which command shows the installed licenses?

97. Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

98. Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

99. For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator what is a TRUE statement?

100. Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?