200-301 Dumps V31.03 (2025 Updated) – Prepare with the Latest 200-301 Exam Questions and Pass Your CCNA Exam Easily

1. Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?

2. Refer to Exhibit.

All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR.

Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

3. Refer to Exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN.

Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

4. Refer to Exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

5. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

6. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

7. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

8. DRAG DROP

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

9. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services.

Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

10. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

11. Refer to exhibit.

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

12. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

13. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

14. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence.

Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

15. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

16. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

17. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

18. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

19. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

20. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

21. in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

22. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

23. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

24. When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

25. Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

26. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

27. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

28. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

29. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

30. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)

31. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.

Which type of security program is in place?

32. An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers.

Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

33. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

34. Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

35. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

36. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

37. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

38. Which output displays a JSON data representation?

A)

B)

C)

D)

39. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

40. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment.

Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

41. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

42. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

43. DRAG DROP

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency.

Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

44. Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended.

Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)

45. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

46. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

47. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

48. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

49. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

50. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

51. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

52. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

53. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?

54. Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1.

Which error must be corrected?

55. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

56. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

57. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

58. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

59. Which option about JSON is true?

60. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

61. Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)

62. What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

63. Refer to the exhibit.

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

64. By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

65. What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?

66. Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1.

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

67. Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

68. What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

69. Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two)

70. What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)

71. What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

72. Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

73. How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

74. DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

75. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.

Which command accomplishes this task?

76. What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

77. Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

78. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)

79. Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization.

Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)

80. Refer to the exhibit.

Which path is used by the router for internet traffic?

81. Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

82. which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

83. Refer to the exhibit.

ip arp inspection vlan 2-10

interface fastethernet 0/1

ip arp inspection trust

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

84. What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

85. What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

86. Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

87. In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

88. Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

89. Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

90. What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

91. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

92. Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

93. What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?