Updated ISTQB-CTFL Exam Dumps (V10.02) – Your Reliable Study Materials for ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) Exam Preparation

1. Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?

Debugging identifies the cause of a failure

Debugging is often performed by test engineers

Debugging is considered part of the testing activities

Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code

2. Which statement about use case testing is true?

The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

3. A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of data.

Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

Walkthrough

Informal Review

Technical Review

Management Review

4. Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?

Level of risk of the product or features

Budget to do testing

A particular tester involved in testing

Time available to do testing

5. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

A - unknown B - limned access C- unknown

A - full access B - limited access C - unknown

A - full access B - limited access C - limited access

A - unknown B - full access C - unknown

6. A system computes prices for bus tickets.

The price depends on

- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)

- the travelling type (as single or in a group)

- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)

- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)

Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?

Statement coverage

State transition testing

Equivalence partitioning

Use case testing

7. Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

Exploratory testing

Requirements based testing

Metric based approach

Regression testing

8. The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

int x = 1. int y = 2. int y = 3. X = y=z;

int x = 1. int y = 2. int z = 3. X = z-y

int x = 1. Int y = 2. Int z = 3. Z = x+y

int y = 2 Int z = 3. Y = z+y

9. For a mandatory input field "ZIP code" the following rules are given:

1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits.

2 - The code has to exist in the post office's official ZIP code list

Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?

8

3

6

4

10. A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.

Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.

Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement

It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)

It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)

11. Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

12. Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?

S0->S1->S2->S3->S4

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

13. Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

14. Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

It is not a defect

Defect

Error

Failure

15. Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.

Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.

A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.

Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.

16. In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

Retirement of the software or system

Modifications to a released software or system

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

17. Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Planning the review

Determines if the review objectives have been met

Decide on the execution of reviews

Allocate time for review

18. Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct?

Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.

The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.

The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.

Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.

19. Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

20. A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.

Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

Pesticide Paradox

Early testing

Absence-of-errors fallacy

Defect clustering

21. In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

22. During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes.

Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?

Try to recreate the incident before reporting

Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem

Send an email to the developer and not report the bug

Report the incident as is without any further action

23. Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

I, Ill

I, IV

II, IV

II, Ill

24. Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.

I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.

II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.

III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.

V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

I III IV and V are true. II is false.

II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.

I, II and IV are true. III and V are false.

II, Ill and V are true. 1 ants Iv are false.

25. As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X and Z) sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.

Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?

Expected result

Test case identifier

Test setup details

Actual result

26. Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE?

I. Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed.

II. Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed.

III. Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level.

IV. Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.

V. Re-testing should be included in the debugging activity.

I, III, Iv

II, v

I, Ill

II, IV, V

27. Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I. Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV. Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

I, III, IV

I, II, III

III, IV

II, III, IV

28. Which of the following statements about testware are correct?

I. When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released

II. All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management

III. The testware. at the end of the project, should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance

IV. The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware

II, Ill

I, Ill

I, IV

II, IV

29. A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool.

Which of the following is the best option?

Document incidents on a large board in the lab

Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

30. Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

31. Which of the following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase:

I. Usability

II. Requirements based scenarios

III. Testing parts of the code in isolation

IV. Correct order of parameters in API calls

I, Ill

I, II

II, IV

III, IV

32. A mid-size software product development company has analyzed data related to defects detected in its product and found out that detects fixed in earlier builds are getting re-opened after a few months.

The company management now seeks your advice in order to reverse this trend and prevent re-opening of defects fixed earlier.

What would be your FIRST recommendation to the company?

Automate existing test suits so that lesser time is spent on execution of each test, and more tests can be executed m the available time thus leading to a lower probability of defects slipping by

Verify existing regression test suite are adequate, and augment it, if required, in order to ensure that defects fixed earlier get re-tested in each subsequent build

Analyze the product modules containing maximum defects, and get them thoroughly tested and defects fixed as a one-time activity

If required, tram the teams responsible for development and testing of the modules containing maximum number of defects, and if this does not help, replace them with more knowledgeable people

33. Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved

The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects

For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards

The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing

34. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity

Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

35. Given the following requirement:

Requirement ID: 2 8

Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee

Detailed Description

An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but

1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.

2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.

3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.

Age should be an integer of 0 or above.

Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

36. Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Test environment details

How to reproduce the defect

How to fix the defect

Seventy and priority

37. You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password.

Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

38. For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

Use case based testing

Decision table

Boundary value analysis

Equivalence class partitioning

39. Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II. Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III. Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV. Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

II, Ill

I, II

I, IV

III, IV

40. The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel).

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

4

1

2

Infinite

41. Why it is essential that defects found in a review be reported objectively?

In order to facilitate easy entry of detected defects in a OTS (Defect Tracking System)

In order to allow the author of reviewed work product(S) to take the feedback positively as an effort at improving the product (S) and not as a personal assault

In order to allow the review moderator to easily understand them, and assign them to the right developer for fixing

In order to allow augmentation of existing checklists used for reviewing the work product (S)

42. The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.

What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test, Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge

Advantage: being closer to customer perspective, Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing, Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development

Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development; Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

43. The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).

Which sentence is correct?

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.

44. 4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:

0 < x <100

100<= x <= 200

200 < x < 500

x >= 500

Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

50; 100; 200. 1000

0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;

0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;

50; 100; 250; 1000

45. Which of the following are valid testing principles?

I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.

II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.

III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.

IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.

V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product.

I, IV, V

II, Iv

I, V

I, Ill

46. Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules.

If new defects are to be found we should run the same test set more often.

Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.

How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.

47. Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

Oracles are derived from the design

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

48. Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code.

Static tests should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user.

Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing.

Static testing is done only on the requirements You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code.

49. The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15 8.2010

Defect detected by: Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case: Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen 2 Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Add information about which web browser was used

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

Add an impact analysis

50. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

It identifies defects in modules and classes.

Simulators and stubs may be required.

It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.

It may be applied using a test-first approach.

51. Which of the following is NOT a common objective of testing?

Finding defects in the software

Preventing defects

Debugging the software to find the reason for defects

Providing information on the status of the system

52. A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things.

Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:

Identification of unreachable code

Report on adherence to the coding standards

Number of comment lines

Number of source code lines

53. Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

configuration management tool

unit test framework tool

test design tool

monitoring tool

54. A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive).

Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

999.1000.23232.99999.100000

999.1000.50000.100000.100001

999.100000

1000,50000,99999

55. Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader?

To automate tests.

To prepare and acquire test data.

To set up the test environment.

To coordinate the test strategy with project managers.

56. Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Boundary value analysis.

Error guessing

Exploratory testing

Fault attack

57. Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I. Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.

Ill. Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

II, III, V

I, II, IV

I, III, v

II, III, IV

58. Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

When a new test automation tool is launched

When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks

When it is easy to automate

When it is cheap to buy test automation tools

59. Consider the following testing levels:

1) Component Testing

2) Integration Testing

3) System Testing

4) Acceptance Testing

Which of the following statements is true?

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used. Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development. Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models. Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

60. A test manager defined the following test levels in her test plan; Component, System and Acceptance.

Which Software Development lifecycle is the Test Manager most likely following?

V-Model

Agile

Waterfall

Prototyping

61. A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:

- E; the emission level of the vehicle

- P: the power of the vehicle

-T the type of the vehicle

The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.

Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?

14,351

14,15,350,351

15,350

5.175.500

62. A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests.

Which of the following is correct?

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

63. Which of the following is NOT a product risk?

Poor software usability

Failure-prone software is delivered

Problems in defining the right requirements

Software does not perform the intended functions

64. Why should you choose a test technique?

Because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test

Because of the time constraints that usually accompany a test project

Because this way you cover the full scope of the product's functionality

Because choosing a test technique is a common practice in software testing

65. Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Test schedules

Cost of testing performed so far

Confidence of testers in tested code

Number of unfixed defects

66. How can testing contribute to higher quality?

Testing help to measure the quality of software.

Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.

Testing removes errors in the software.

Testing eliminates the risk with software.

67. A program got 100% decision coverage in a test.

Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

Every executable statement Is covered.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

The "dead" code has not been covered.

68. Which of the following should be included in a test status report?

I. Estimation details

II. Total number of open and closed defects

III. Actual effort spent

IV. Defect reports

V. Number of executed, failed, blocked tests

III, V

II, III

I, II, IV

II, III, V

69. In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

70. A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

(0.12.13.18.19)

(4.5.15.20)

71. Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Functional Testing

Code inspection

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

Coverage analysis

72. What is 'Component Testing'?

Integration Testing

Functional testing

Experience-based testing

A test level

73. Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Finding defects

Providing information for decision-making

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

74. An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states;

Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:

Id T000561

Test Object "Warehouse Management' application

Tester name; John Bishop

Date: 10th. April 2010

Test Case MRT558I

Status OPEN

Severity Serious

Priority

Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47

Correction:

Developer name:

Closing date:

Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing

The version of the application is missing

There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)

The description is not highlighting the source of the problem

75. Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

Kick-off meeting

Low cost

Individual preparation

Metrics analysis

76. Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The lest environment should correspond to the production environment

III. Finding defects is not the main focus

IV. Testing can be based on use cases

V. Testing is normally performed by testers

VI. Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

Component - VI Integration - IV System - I Acceptance - III

Component - IV Integration -I System - VI Acceptance - V

Component - I Integration - V System - II Acceptance - IV

Component - V Integration - II System - IV Acceptance - VI

77. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

78. Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

79. A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

80. In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Test design specification

Project plan

Requirements specification

Test plan

81. The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

-100; 100:1000; 1001

-500; 0; 100; 1000

-99; 99:101; 1001

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

82. Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Can't be determined

Covering all transitions at least once

Covering only start and end states

Covering all states at least once

83. Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

84. Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

85. A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

A. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

86. Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

The developer

The customer

The development manager

The test leader

87. Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

88. Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

Potentially endless loops

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

Security vulnerabilities

89. A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool.

Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

Train all testers on using the tool

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

90. Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

91. A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Code coverage

Data flow coverage

Statement coverage

Branch Coverage

92. What is test oracle?

The source of lest objectives

The source for the actual results

The source of expected results

The source of input conditions

93. Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

94. Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V. Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

II, IV, V

I, III, IV

II

I, IV

95. A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

Mistake

Fault

Error

Failure

96. A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware.

The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds'

Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

97. Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

A test leader writes a test summary report

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

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