Pass Check Point Certified Security Expert – R80 Exam With Updated 156-315.80 Exam Dumps

1. What state is the Management HA in when both members have different policies/databases?

2. Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

3. In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

4. How many interfaces can you configure to use the Multi-Queue feature?

5. Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

6. According to out of the box SmartEvent policy, which blade will automatically be correlated into events?

7. Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

8. Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components?

9. What is the base level encryption key used by Capsule Docs?

10. Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

11. What traffic does the Anti-bot feature block?

12. Matt wants to upgrade his old Security Management server to R80.x using the Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration .

What is one of the requirements for a successful upgrade?

13. On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

14. Which of the following is NOT a valid type of SecureXL template?

15. CoreXL is NOT supported when one of the following features is enabled: (Choose three)

16. Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

17. What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

18. Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

19. How can SmartView application accessed?

20. What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

21. In Advanced Permanent Tunnel Configuration, to set the amount of time the tunnel test runs without a

response before the peer host is declared ‘down’, you would set the_________?

22. How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

23. The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

24. In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log .

Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

25. Which blades and or features are not supported in R80?

26. View the rule below .

What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? (Choose the BEST answer.)

27. How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

28. UserCheck objects in the Application Control and URL Filtering rules allow the gateway to communicate with the users .

Which action is not supported in UserCheck objects?

29. Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

30. In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:

31. Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

32. In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with __________________ will not apply.

33. How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?

34. By default, the R80 web API uses which content-type in its response?

35. Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

36. You need to change the MAC-address on eth2 interface of the gateway .

What is the correct way to change MAC-address in Check Point Gaia?

37. What is the command used to activated Multi-Version Cluster mode?

38. You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference .

What command should you use?

39. Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

40. When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

41. What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

42. Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

43. What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

44. The Compliance Blade allows you to search for text strings in many windows and panes, to search for a value in a field, what would your syntax be?

45. Which 3 types of tracking are available for Threat Prevention Policy?

46. Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?

47. Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

48. Joey want to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI .

What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

49. What solution is Multi-queue intended to provide?

50. To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

51. How does the Anti-Virus feature of the Threat Prevention policy block traffic from infected websites?

52. Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

53. Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes- Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

54. You have enabled “Full Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information .

What is the MOST likely reason?

55. SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

56. After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

57. As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

58. Aaron is a Syber Security Engineer working for Global Law Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances running GAiA R80.X The Network Security Developer Team is having an issue testing the API with a newly deployed R80.X Security Management Server Aaron wants to confirm API services are working properly .

What should he do first?

59. The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

60. Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

61. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

62. In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

63. What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

64. What is the default size of NAT table fwx_alloc?

65. How would you enable VMAC Mode in ClusterXL?

66. In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

67. Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

68. What is true about the IPS-Blade?

69. Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

70. Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

71. Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

72. What SmartEvent component creates events?

73. Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?

74. SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

75. After verifying that API Server is not running, how can you start the API Server?

76. While using the Gaia CLI. what is the correct command to publish changes to the management server?

77. Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

78. Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

79. Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

80. What processes does CPM control?

81. Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

82. Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

83. Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

84. Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R80?

85. What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

86. When configuring SmartEvent Initial settings, you must specify a basic topology for SmartEvent to help it calculate traffic direction for events .

What is this setting called and what are you defining?

87. You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R80.10?

88. To optimize Rule Base efficiency, the most hit rules should be where?

89. In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?

90. What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?

91. Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

92. Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

93. You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

94. Within the Check Point Firewall Kernel resides Chain Modules, which are individually responsible for the inspection of a specific blade or feature that has been enabled in the configuration of the gateway. For Wire mode configuration, chain modules marked with _______ will not apply.

95. What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

96. Which NAT rules are prioritized first?